Saturday, August 13, 2011
EFSF (European Financial Stability Fund)
Wednesday, August 10, 2011
Metrics To Track Funding Stress
Swap Spreads
- A sharp widening in two-year swap spreads reflects an increase in expected Libor rates versus short-term government borrowing and is a measure of increased funding stress / deteriorating credit conditions in inter-bank borrowing.
- A sharp widening in five-year swap spreads reflects a flight-to-quality trade when investors seek safer government debt over a proxy for highly rated, non-financial corporate borrowers.
- The EUR Basis swap represents the give-up in the market rate in Euribor versus Libor and represents the scarcity of dollar funding for borrowers in the euro zone. A very large negative spread represents a larger premium for Libor funding over Euribor funding.
- (Swap spreads are a popular way to indicate the credit spreads in a market. It is defined as the spread paid by the fixed-rate payer of an interest rate swap over the on the run treasury with the same maturity as the swap. For example, if the fixed-rate of a 5-year fixed-for-float LIBOR swap is 7.26% and the 5-year Treasury is yielding at 6.43%, the swap spread is 7.26% - 6.43% = 83 bps.)
- A sharp increase in yields in the first four contracts and a simultaneous rally in the next four represents signs of funding stress, as short-term borrowing rates spike relative to the rest of the funding curve.
- ( Eurodollar futures contract refers to the financial futures contract based upon Eurodollar deposits (which are US dollar-denominated deposits), traded at the CME. They are a way for companies and banks to lock in an interest rate today, for money it intends to borrow or lend in the future. Each CME Eurodollar futures contract has a notional of "face value" of $1,000,000.
CME Eurodollar futures prices are determined by the market's forecast of the 3-month USD LIBOR interest rate expected to prevail on the settlement date.
A single Eurodollar future is similar to a forward rate agreement to borrow or lend US$1,000,000 for three months starting on the contract settlement date. Buying the contract is equivalent to lending money and selling the contract short is equivalent to borrowing money. (Note that a contract is different from an actual loan due to a lack of convexity as well as the fact that credit risk is only on the margin account balance.) )
- The 3s1s basis is a spread to one-month Libor that investors can lock in in exchange for three-month Libor at a specified forward date. Widening occurs as long-term funding becomes more scarce, reflecting higher liquidity and term premium
- Similarly a widening in the 3s6s basis reflects scarce long-term funding in the money market and reflects higher liquidity and term premium.
- The FRA-OIS spread represents the spread between the uncollateralized Libor borrowing rate in the inter-ban market versus a highly correlated proxy for the expected funds rate over a three-month period at a specified forward date. A widening in spread represents increased funding stress in teh banking system.
- A widening in CDS across major indices represents a deterioration in the credit outlook
- Represents the spread of five-year European sovereign debt to the five-year German benchmark. A sharp widening in these spreads represents a deterioration of the fiscal outlook for these sovereigns.
- A strengthening of the dollar versus euro represents scarcity of overseas dollars potentially driven by funding stress.
- Represents the three-month rate that banks are willing to lend in the inter-bank market. A sharp increase in rates is reflective of more demand versus supply of loanable funds in the inter-bank market.
- A decline in the French bank stocks and/or a widening of their CDS may reflect an increase in the likelihood of a sovereign default by Greece given the large exposure of French banks to Greek sovereign debt.
Wednesday, November 17, 2010
Crude
* The delivery point for futures traded on NYMEX
* Rising inventories/stockpiling reflects wide gap between price of oil for delivery in next month & contracts to deliver later
* Contango is the norm in oil markets, with the price gap representing the cost of storing the oil & locking up investors' money
* Unusually large gap or super-contango may reflect current sluggish demand & expectations that demand will pick up in following months...
+ Contango 'creates financial incentive to store more barrels'
+ Investors can simply buy early contract, take physical deliver, store it, & at same time sell later contract at higher prices
* Max storage capacity in Cushing is ~42.4M barrels, but only ~80% (or ~34M barrels) is operable storage space
* BBERG: DOESCROK Index
+ DOE Cushing, OK Crude Oil Total Stocks Data
+ Updated Weds 10:30AM for previous week end Friday
+ From Energy Information Administration's Weekly Petroleum Status Report
+ Estimated, based on weekly data collected by DOE
Monday, October 18, 2010
What is Quantitative Easing?
What is Quantitative Easing?
It's basically when a central bank can't cut interest rates anymore, because they are too low. It can also happen if a central bank decides that cutting rates won't work for some reason. To meet its liquidity objectives, the central bank instead manipulates the size of its balance sheet.
How does it normally work?
The central bank buys financial assets from financial institutions using money it creates out of thin air. This causes bank reserves in the financial system to increase, creating 'excess reserves'. The result is a huge increase of the monetary base in the economy.
It's called quantitative easing because it 'involves a change in the quantity variable (reserves and/or the monetary base) as opposed to a change in the interest rate target.'
What's the point?
It's meant to provide needed liquidity to a financial system and stimulate economic activity, though it carries inflation risk.
But... then what is 'sterilization' and how does it control things?
Sterilization is used to offset the acquisition of assets by a central bank. After the central bank buys new assets, it can 'sterilize' these assets by either getting rid of different assets or adding an equal, counterbalancing amount of liabilities. It is important to understand that 'when the acquisition of an asset is sterilized, there is no QE because the balance sheet effects are neutralized.' Thus, when sterilization is happening, quantitative easing hasn't happened yet, even though the central bank is buying financial assets from the market as a form of support.
When did QE in America start?
'The Federal Reserve shifted to quantitative easing in September 2008 when it expanded a number of liquidity programmes, including the term auction facility (TAF) and central bank FX swap lines, and ceased its sterilization efforts.”
QE started in September 2008, when sterilization ended but the central bank was still buying financial assets from financial institutions.
'Up to this point, the Fed had been sterilizing the impact of its new support facilities by liquidating Treasuries.
Liquidating Treasuries
For example, the TAF was introduced in late 2007 and was scaled up to US$150 billion by May 2008. Over that same interval, the Fed liquidated more than US$200 billion of its holdings of Treasuries in order to sterilize the TAF and other special programmes.
So, the volume of bank reserves was essentially unchanged during this period, but the mix of balance sheet items shifted.'
QE caused bank reserves to explode.
In September 2008 – as financial markets were melting down – the Fed cried uncle and gave up trying to sterilize. Excess reserves rose from a normal level of US$1.0-1.5 billion to US$270 billion in October 2008 as the liquidity support programmes continued to expand.
These reserves were created from central bank money created out of thin air. This was the 'money-printing' so many have complained about.
By the end of 2008, excess reserves reached US$800 billion and the monetary base had nearly doubled in size.
In early 2009, the Fed started to purchase large quantities of MBS and agency debt, and in March it began buying Treasuries. However, it’s important to note that the bulk of the QE took place several months before the Fed started buying mortgages and Treasuries.
Thus, it is incorrect to simply refer to the Fed’s bond purchases as QE.
The Fed’s objective was to restore liquidity to important markets, and it did.
The Fed succeeded in achieving these goals. The TAF, FX swap lines and alphabet soup of other liquidity support facilities appeared to play an important role in reining in LIBOR.
The economy was jump-started, and pressure was taken off of housing, by far cheaper mortgage rates.
Meanwhile, the LSAPs (large-scale asset purchases) helped to drive mortgage rates lower. This provided a significant amount of stimulus to the economy.
Many were worried about the effects of giant growth in money supply... but here's why it has been okay so far.
As mentioned earlier, the monetarist view is that QE represents an important event because the expansion of the monetary base is likely to be accompanied by growth in the money supply. However, this was not really the case in the US. While the base doubled, growth in narrow money experienced only a modest acceleration, as the money multiplier plummeted. This reflected the fact that the excess reserves created by the Fed were parked in cash.
Banks have been paid interest on their reserves to prevent inflation.
The Fed has been paying interest on banks' reserves in order to incentivize them not too lend everything out, and thus in an attempt to prevent huge excess bank reserves from translating into inflationary forces. This interest is likely higher than the market-rate which would banks would get if such a program didn't exist. It's meant to put a floor under short-term rates (i.e. rates can't fall below Fed's interest rates on the reserves.)
This entire process could prove itself to have been extremely smart.
If the Fed can now engineer a successful exit from QE, any inflation consequences and market distortions should largely evaporate.
It all depends on whether the Fed can restore normalcy to its balance sheet successfully.
The Fed plans to use multiple methods in order to reduce the size of its balance sheet and remove excess reserves from the banking system. For our purposes here, the exact methods need only be briefly referenced: 'The Fed plans to use term deposits, reverse RPs and asset sales to unwind QE. The asset sale option has generated a lot of interest recently and appears to have gained unanimous acceptance among Fed officials.
But the sequencing still appears to be reverse RPs and term deposits first, followed by asset sales later on.
It'll be a tricky balancing act for the U.S. going forward...
The trick will be whether the Fed can use the aforementioned methods to drain at least one trillion dollars of excess reserves from the banking system, as a completion of the QE process, in a balancing act between unsettling the financial system and high U.S. inflation.
'We are... concerned that the Fed may not be able to hike the fed funds rate when the time comes, unless it is willing to drain away a size able portion of the excess reserve position.
...
Bernanke is saying that the Fed will try to engineer a gradual exit from QE, but could be forced into a more rapid exit. It should be obvious that the process of draining US$1 trillion or more of excess reserves in a short period of time is fraught with potential market risks.
A rapid exit, in a bid to prevent emerging inflation, could cause a substantial shock to the financial system, as it would be a very sudden form of monetary tightening.
It's perilous, and now Europe is beginning a similar journey, just as the U.S. is exiting.
Last week, the ECB announced that it would start to intervene in euro area bond markets and buy public and private debt under a new Securities Market Programme (SMP)
...
The ECB’s recent decision to purchase debt securities in order to ease market ‘dysfunction’ has certainly had the desired impact on bond yields, but it has also left many questions unanswered. Do the bond purchases represent QE or a move towards QE?'